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The theories are all written by a human, afterall, prone to many faults. Oh! I forgot to mentione the strongest contradiction: if the wizards were successful, then what the hell were Easterlings doing in the War? Just another issue. I, however, give no importance to one theory over another and I shall consider this along with the old theory to be two equally likely options, both with their own merits and demerits. Verily I accept this theory and how its addresses many unknowns regarding the two wizards. Ofcourse, donot think that I arrogantly refuse to believe anything that is said contrary to what I believe or have knowledge of. Werenot the Southrons and the Easterlings in an already great number? Would any kingdom suffer exiling all of it's army to far battlefields? In likeness to these, and some other discrepancies remain, that are unaddressed by this new theory. Another issue that bothers me is the ignorance of the person in stating that, "Why didn’t the enemies from the east and the south perform a serious attack against Gondor?" to be a reason backing this theory. For example, if the Blue Wizards didnot fail in their original tasks (though they failed in finding Sauron), why is it that they didnot return to the West? Perhaps they died? But if they did die and also didnot fail, then they would be returned back, much like Gandalf the Grey.
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Many areas are still left untouched, making the new theory unreliable and incomplete. Ofcourse, if his later revisions on his theory of the Blue Wizards contradicted with certain points, then he needed to work on these points and address them to fit his new theory. It is hardly possible, therefore, to ignore the basic fact the Appendix states the arrival of the wizards to be circa 1000 TA, a solid crystal-clear fact that need not be misinterpreted. If any editiings were necessary, they were made. One should be aware of the fact the the writing that is most solid is LotR and the Hobbit. But I'm still not convinced with the information provided. Any questions? Anything unclear? Please ask! Neither could the One Ring exert as much influence over them as the other Rings. Of the Elves, the Three Rings of the Elves were created by Elves themselves, so since they didnot ally with him, he could not take those Rings away. Thus he took back the Dwarven Rings that were left. He wished the Men and Dwarves to ally with him, which only the Men did and not the Dwarves. Sauron was the creator of the Nine Rings for Men, the Seven Rings for Dwarves, and the One Ring. All this shows why Dwarves didnot turn into wraiths. In the Third Age, Sauron discovered that most of the Seven Rings had been consumed by dragons, and the remaining three he took back since the Dwarves refused to forge an alliance with Sauron. Not being of much use, these Rings were often discarded. Even if they accepted, the Rings only increased their lust for gold. When Sauron gave them the Seven Rings, many refused. This way, he did not know the location of the Three Rings to exert any great influence over them.ĭwarves: Dwarves were sturdy folk, not much affected by magic.
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The Elves could use their Rings freely without any threat of conversion into wraiths as the One Ring and it's Master were separated (hence weakened and unable to effect/control the other Rings).Īfter his return, the Elves refrained from using the Rings openly, but that was merely done so that Sauron couldn't guess who had the Ring. They realised the danger of using their Rings, so they took off their Three Rings and refrained from using them.Īfter Sauron's defeat in the War of the Last Alliance, the One Ring was no longer in the hands of Sauron, so it's power no longer endured. In time, they fell under the power of the One Ring and became Ringwraiths, or the Nazgûl.Įlves: In the Second Age, the Elves became aware of Sauron's deceit when he forged the One Ring. Men lust for power, and in their greed for the powers provided to them by the Rings, they took them and used them.